I'm siding with the police officer on this one. (Surprise, surprise.)
Let's say I'm a policeman. I've gotten a call telling me 2 men are trying to break into a house. I'm going in, assuming, for my own safety, that these two men have hostile intent.
In such a case, if I'm the policeman, I'm going to ask the man to step outside his house, whether he's the home-owner or not. Why? If there is someone inside with hostile intent, I've just removed that person's bargaining chip. If a person asks suspiciously, for any reason, I'm going to assume something is going on inside - the homeowner or a member of his family is endangered. I'm going to be even more demanding that he step outside. Right now is my best chance for safeguarding the homeowner.
The reason the man is arrested is for one reason and one reason only - he became belligerent and abusive. And he did it to a person who was only trying to safeguard him.
Let me throw out the following scenario: let's assume that there *WAS* someone in there with hostile intent. That was reported to the police - by the neighbor (thank goodness for a neighbor who actually cared enough to get involved). 2 people are there - the home-owner, and a burglar. Or perhaps 2 burglars with the home-owner unaware of their presence. The policeman just goes, "Oh, false alarm. Sorry sir," and leaves. Are we then looking at a situation where a black home-owner says, "Well, if I were white, the police would have actually checked on things"? What happens if the burglar kills this man, when the police could have prevented it?
We have to ask this question: were the police being unreasonable by asking the man to come outside, and by asking if anyone else was in the house with him? The answer is "NO." In fact, ONLY by getting the man out of the house can you assure that you are in control of the situation.
This is one of those cases where a man with a chip on his shoulder is upset because someone gave him a vehicle for his paranoia. He overreacted. He was arrested. End of story.